I am wondering, this isn't the first time I have thought about this but the first time I am writing about it. I met a guy online several years ago. Not until recently maybe last year he said he was bi and didn't I know it all the years before. I said 'no'. He lives quite a distance from me so meeting up was out of the question and besides we weren't heading in any direction but a friend online to chat with and share woes.
My question is if a guy who is married has a wife but after a few years she doesn't want to have a sexual relationship him any longer for whatever reason, no separation or divorce, they somewhat enjoy each others company and wealth together, why would a guy instead of looking for another lady to full fill his sexual needs turn to a guy for that need to be full filled. Is having a male partner to full fill your sexual needs make it legitimate as opposed to having a relationship with a lady. Can the guy then say he isn't having an extra martial affair ? Tell the wife he is hanging out with the guys but actually meeting up with his guy lover?
Just wondering?
My question is if a guy who is married has a wife but after a few years she doesn't want to have a sexual relationship him any longer for whatever reason, no separation or divorce, they somewhat enjoy each others company and wealth together, why would a guy instead of looking for another lady to full fill his sexual needs turn to a guy for that need to be full filled. Is having a male partner to full fill your sexual needs make it legitimate as opposed to having a relationship with a lady. Can the guy then say he isn't having an extra martial affair ? Tell the wife he is hanging out with the guys but actually meeting up with his guy lover?
Just wondering?
